Public Goods In South African Agriculture Economics Essay

Public Goods In South African Agriculture Economics Essay Public goods are goods that are produced in order to serve communities, where all members of the community are served equally. This is possible since the consumption by one member of a community does not decrease the quantity or quality of the public good for another member of the community. In it pure form, public goods can therefore not be divided into pieces for every member of the community, but is a collective good, being indivisible. (Loehr Sandler, 1978, p. 12) To produce these public goods in a manner that will serve the communities that needs it and to allocate public goods efficient, policies are used to provide the structure. These policies are installed by government in order to correct the failure of the market. In order to understand this interrelation between market failure, government intervention, policies and private goods, one should start at the beginning, namely market failure. This should originally be the reason why there is government intervention by means of policies. In this paper market failure will be used to start the argument on policies on public goods in agriculture. Government intervention through policies to correct the malfunction of the market will be discussed after which there will be a discussion on public goods in agriculture as a result of the above mentioned and how these public goods are delivered in agriculture. Market Failure and Government Intervention 2.1 What Market Failure is Market failure exists when the market are unable to produce at a level which is Pareto optimal, Pareto optimality being a position in the market where one person in the market cannot be better off without at least one other person in the market being worse off. (Loehr Sandler, 1978, p. 11) According to Philip Black in Public Economics for South African students (2003, pp. 21-23) there are six reasons for market failures. Lack of Information A lack of information can cause market failure, since the information available to customers and producers are not necessarily at a level to equip them to make rational decisions. A possible solution to this problem is that governments should provide this information to society, but by definition private institutions are driven by profit, making them better at obtaining and distributing information than government agencies. (Black, Calitz, Steenekamp, 2003, pp. 21-22) Lags in Adjustments Lags in the adjustment of markets exist, even if lack of information is not the only reason. Time lagging can also occur if resources are not very mobile, meaning that it cannot adapt instantly to new information. Labour, for example, can only move from one job to another with some time passing, even though new job opportunities are available. Physical capital, like machinery, cannot be moved from one place to another at any moment, but can only happen at highly irregular time periods. (Black, Calitz, Steenekamp, 2003, p. 22) Incomplete Markets When supply of certain products cannot meet the demand for those products, incomplete markets arise. For these reason public goods, such as street lighting, defence security, etc. is installed. Markets can also not take full responsibility for the external cost and benefits that are associated with individual behaviour and therefore markets are incomplete. (Black, Calitz, Steenekamp, 2003, p. 22) Non-competitive Markets Markets fail when it is characterised by non-competitiveness. By this, which happens more often than not, is meant that the competitiveness is taken out of the market. These reasons are monopolies and oligopolies in commodity markets, minimum wage restrictions on labour, and many more. (Black, Calitz, Steenekamp, 2003, p. 22) Macroeconomic Instability Markets can fail because of instability in the economys macro environment. The macro environment includes attacks on the countrys currency and other factors. This macroeconomic instability can cause markets to take too long to adjust to the exogenous shocks and government intervention through policy might be needed to rescue the situation. (Black, Calitz, Steenekamp, 2003, pp. 22-23) Distribution of Income The distribution of income is and will probably never be reasonable and fair in a sense that it will be satisfactory to the wide community or government which represents that community. Therefore Pareto optimality in the allocation of resources will not happen, thus leading to classification of market failure. This issue of skew distribution of wealth has been addressed by governments by creating wealth in a growing population through policy. (Black, Calitz, Steenekamp, 2003, p. 23) Government Intervention Government intervention in the market can be done in three different ways, the approaches being an allocative function, distributive function, and stabilisation function. Allocative Function The allocative function of governments who are intervening in the market is to address the issues of incomplete markets and non-competitive markets, as discussed previously. Through direct intervention in the market, governments can correct incomplete markets, such as supplying street lights, etc. Through indirect government, also known as the regulatory function of the government, non-competitive markets are regulated, with policies such as the competition policy which is intended to prevent monopolies from acting abusive. (Black, Calitz, Steenekamp, 2003, pp. 24,26) Distributive Function This function of the government is especially angled at the market failure of income distribution. The government use a model to determine how it should spread wealth. This models outcome is positively correlated with the participants in the markets original distribution of labour and capital. This model, however, is does not determine how fair this distribution is. This distributive function of the government comes in the form of direct intervention in the market through taxes and as a regulatory function it makes use if subsidies and transfer payments. (Black, Calitz, Steenekamp, 2003, pp. 24-26) Stabilisation Function To correct the market failure of the inability of the economy to react adequately to macro environment factors, governments intervene by means of its stabilisation function. Stabilisation of the market to reach the macroeconomic objectives is also part of this function. The appropriate monetary and fiscal policy would be installed by government to keep the market from failing to accomplish price stability, an acceptable economic growth rate, sound balance of payments, etc. This can be done through direct intervention in the market as well as through a regulatory function where indirect taxes and subsidies help to achieve fiscal objectives indirectly. (Black, Calitz, Steenekamp, 2003, pp. 25-26) Public Goods in General Types of Goods There are two properties that indicate the type of goods, namely excludability and rivalry. These two properties can be used in a table form (see Table 1) in order to differentiate Private goods, Common goods, Club goods, and Public goods from each other. Table : Different types of goods (Solum, 2009) From Table 1 the following can be drawn: Private goods are goods where the benefits are fully rival and excludable, for example fuel. Common goods are goods where the benefits are rival but non-excludable, for example fish. Club goods are goods where the benefits are non-rivalry but excludable, for example cinemas. Public goods are goods where the benefits are non-rivalry and non-excludable, for example national defence. Common goods and Club goods are part of the larger impure public goods group, since in pure form they do not have excludability or rivalry. Pure private goods are therefore goods of which the benefits are pure rival and excludable. Pure public goods are thus goods of which the benefits are pure non-rival and non-excludable. (Cornes Sandler, 1986, pp. 6-7) Characteristics of Public Goods There are 5 characteristics of public goods that will be discussed, two of which defines it from other type of goods, as mentioned above. Non-rival Public goods are non-rival, meaning that consumption by one person does not influence the consumption by another person. There is therefore no competition between consumers for the use of the specific product. (Moeti, Khalo, Mafunisa, Makondo, Nsingo, 2007, p. 24) Non-excludable Public goods are non-excludable, making it practically impossible to abstain it from one person if it is allowed for another. The problem that comes with non-excludability is the free-rider problem, where people who do not pay for the product still benefit from it, since they cannot get excluded from it. It is therefore necessary for governments to intervene and produce these products, since it cannot be produced profitably by the private sector. (Moeti, Khalo, Mafunisa, Makondo, Nsingo, 2007, p. 24) Non-apportionable Public goods are non-apportionable since it cannot be measured in order to provide it in units which can have a price attached to it and sold for that price. In this case, it is possible for water to be either a public good or not, since water can be made available to a whole community at no charge or it can be sold in bottles in a shop. (Moeti, Khalo, Mafunisa, Makondo, Nsingo, 2007, p. 24) Monopolistic Public goods can be monopolistic, making it products where there is only one role player in the market, namely the government. Governments can produce the goods that the public demand by making use of the structure of a natural monopoly. In a natural monopoly it is more efficient to have only one player (producer) in the market than more than one. (Moeti, Khalo, Mafunisa, Makondo, Nsingo, 2007, p. 25) No Direct Quid Pro Quo Quid pro quo is a Latin term which means something for something. Public goods are therefore goods with no direct quid pro quo, meaning no something for something, it this case a public good in return for money (quid pro quo is very much applicable for private goods). By paying taxes, tax payers do not receive public goods to the same value of the tax they paid, but receive whatever any other person receives, irrespective of the amount of tax they pay. Progressive scales for taxes and fiscal spending are installed in order to guide the receiving and spending of tax money of public goods. (Moeti, Khalo, Mafunisa, Makondo, Nsingo, 2007, p. 25) Public Policies Theory on Public Policy towards Externalities Externalities can cause markets to allocate resources in an insufficient way, externalities being the impact of one persons actions on a bystanders wellbeing without compensating the bystander for it. To correct the cause of externalities, governments can make use of command-and-control policies by which behaviour is directly regulated, or it can make use of market-based policies which is indirect and provides incentive to decision makers to correct the problem themselves. (Mankiw Taylor, 2006, pp. 198,464) Direct Regulation of Externalities By regulating the market directly, governments enforce certain boundaries or restrictions onto role players in the market in order to counter externalities. For example, by installing an upper limit on the amount of pollution that a factory is allowed, governments adopt a command-and-control policy. (Mankiw Taylor, 2006, p. 198) Indirect Regulation of Externalities By indirectly regulating the market, governments make use of market-based policies to counter an externality. In doing this, governments provide better alignment of private incentives with social efficiency at a lower cost to society. Pigovian taxes, named after Arthur Pigou, are taxes which are used to counter the effect of negative externalities. By this method of taxing, pollution, as the example is in the direct regulation of externalities, will be taxed per unit of pollution. The more the factory pollutes, the higher the tax payment and therefore this method creates an incentive to pollute less, since it decreases profit. (Mankiw Taylor, 2006, pp. 198-199) Policies on Public Goods Richard Cornes and Todd Sandler argues in their book, The Theory of Externalities, Public Goods, and Club Goods (1986, p. 69) that public goods in its pure form a special case of an externality is. This would mean that the policies on public goods should be aligned with the policies on externalities discussed in the previous section, namely command-and-control policies and market-based policies. In this section it will become clear whether that is the case as well as what exactly the policy methods are that are used for public goods. According to Leonard Champney (1988, p. 989)in his article, Public Goods and Policy Types, governments can either make use of regulation policies, where the incentives of the government are coercive, or of distribution policies, where the incentives of the government are economic. Coercive can be defined as intimidating people to comply. By further looking at the difference between productive indivisibilities and consumptive indivisibilities, it will be possible to describe the eight types of policies that Champney refers to in his paper. Champney describes productive indivisibilities as products that are produced for one, and because of the indivisibility of public goods, is therefore produced for all. An example of a productive indivisibility product produced by government is a light house. Consumptive indivisibility refers to the consumption of a product produced by government where the consumption by one has a positive influence on others, even though they are excluded from the direct consumption. An example of a consumptive indivisible product produced by government is education. The government can choose to whom education is made available to consume, but the whole society will benefit from it, being more politically stable, economically productive, and technologically advanced. Governments can decide to produc e productive indivisibilities or consumptive indivisibilities. (Champney, 1988, p. 988) Now the eight types of policies can be illustrated and discussed. Table : Government policies for individual targets Table : Government policies for group targets (Champney, 1988, p. 989) Type 1: Internal and External Security Products produced under Type 1 are productive indivisible products and is enforced through regulation onto individuals; the government thus make use of coercive powers as a monopoly and use taxation of individuals (compulsory) to pay for the public goods. Example: national defence. (Champney, 1988, pp. 989-990) Type 2: Compulsory Education Products produce under Type 2 are consumptive indivisible and is enforced through regulation onto individuals. Public goods, such as education which is forced onto young people, are type 2 public goods, since they (the young people) are forced to consume the product. Also, occupational licensure plays a role to ensure that an incompetent physician do not give medical care so that the whole community are forced to consume this product which have indivisible consequences. (Champney, 1988, p. 990) Type 3: Subsidies to Individuals Governments are able to move away from regulatory policies by making use of compulsory taxation in order to provide distributive policies which are more economically aligned. Direct subsidies to individuals, which are productive indivisible and distributive, are type 3 products. Example: soldiers get paid for their duty instead of being forced to enrol. (Champney, 1988, p. 990) Type 4: Subsidies to Individuals Type 4 subsidies to individuals are subsidies which are consumptive indivisible and distributive, therefore being promoting the consumption of a product by means of a subsidy. An example of this is grants for individuals to further their studies to a higher education level. (Champney, 1988, p. 990) Type 5: Environmental Regulations Groups are targeted with this type. Environmental regulations are regulative and productive indivisible by nature. Governments make use of this type of policy to attempt to make the environment better. As an example, corporations must comply with the limit that a government sets on pollution of air and water. (Champney, 1988, p. 990) Type 6: Regulation of Natural Monopoly Regulation of natural monopolies are done by governments in order to assure that provision of a good or service is reasonable and not subject to price setting, price discrimination, and other destructive activities. These types of consumptive indivisible and regulated products are often products which the economy cannot run properly without, such as communication services, and for which there are no substitutes readily available. (Champney, 1988, p. 990) Type 7: Subsidies to Corporations Type 7 subsidies are subsidies to corporations which are productive indivisible and are executed by the distribution function of the government. These subsidies are given to corporations directly or indirectly for leading activities which helps with the production of public goods. An example will be a subsidy to a corporation which produces weapons for usage in a public service, namely the military force. (Champney, 1988, p. 990) Type 8: Subsidies to Research Development Consumptive goods which are indivisible and promoted by distribution form the last of the eight types. By giving subsidies/grants, the government ensures that the necessary research and development is done in order to provide communication services and transportation in the economy. The objective is to give subsidies/grants to key strategic industries, which other sectors in the economy depend on, to do research and development. Through the subsidising of research and development, technical knowledge spreads throughout societies. An example will be subsidies for agricultural RD. (Champney, 1988, p. 990) South African agriculture Public goods in South African agriculture Public goods or services provided by the South African government include a list of 55 services under its Department of Agriculture (see Annexure A). These services are available under the five programmes of the Department of Agriculture (DoA), namely: Administration Livelihoods, Economics and Business Development Bio-security and Disaster Management Production and Resources Management Sector Services and Partnerships (DoA, 2009, pp. 18, 64-65) The purpose and budget of each of these programmes will be discussed. Administration The administration programme of the DoA provides the overall administrative as well as performance overview, with a focus on strategic leadership and management in die DoA. Capital investments are also managed under Administration. This programme had a budget of R 301 627 000 for the financial year 1 April 2008 to 31 March 2009. (DoA, 2009, pp. 24, 29) Livelihoods, Economic and Business Development Food security for households, shared growth and commercial viability for emerging farmers are the objective of the programme. To achieve the objective, this programme makes use of targeted programmes and appropriate policies in the agricultural sector in order to support equitable access to this sector, which in return will make it possible to achieve its (the programmes) objective. This programme had a budget of R 751 451 000 for the financial year 1 April 2008 to 31 March 2009. This money was allocated in the following manner to the subsections of this programme: Management R 1 208 000 Livelihoods Development Support R 604 056 000 Trade and Business Development R 92 461 000 Economic and Statistical Services R 31 267 000 National Agricultural Marketing Council R 22 459 000 (DoA, 2009, pp. 18, 80) Livelihoods Development Support as a sub-programme of Livelihoods, Economic and Business Development, contribute to communities by supporting them through public goods/services, which includes policies, norms, programmes, legislation and information in order to provide post-settlement support to emerging farmers, finance agricultural development, promote farmer cooperatives, start village banks and provide food security. The largest part of the budget for this sub-programme was spent on transfers to provinces and municipalities where they used this money, amongst other programmes, under the Comprehensive Agricultural Support Programme. (DoA, 2009, pp. 34, 81) Trade and Business Development aids the process of making international and domestic markets more accessible by South African products, promotes BEE in agriculture and interacts with National Agricultural Marketing Council (NAMC). The largest part of this budget goes towards transfers to public entities, such as the ArgiBEE Charter Council and NAMC. (DoA, 2009, pp. 8, 34) Economic and Statistical Services grant money in order to aid the process of collecting and analysing agricultural statistics as well as interact with Statistics South Africa. This sub-programme is also responsible for monitoring and evaluating the economic performance of the agricultural sector, with reports on the economic performance issued quarterly. (DoA, 2009, p. 34) NAMC as a part of the budget for Livelihoods, Economic and Business Development solely focus on statutory measures in agriculture. The changes to the constitutional measures are presented to the Minister of Agriculture and are done by NAMC. The application of these constitutional measures is also revised every two years and presented to the Minister of Agriculture. (DoA, 2009, p. 15) Bio-security and Disaster Management This programme of the DoA main functions are to manage the risks involved in animal diseases, plant pests and GMOs as well as to handle the registration of products that are used in the agricultural field. This is done to safeguard human health and to ensure food safety and security. Reducing the risks of natural disasters through management planning of agricultural risk and disasters is also part of the programme. This programme can be divided into two sub-programmes, excluding general management: Management R 1 551 000 Plant Health and Inspection Services R 138 225 000 Food, Animal Health and Disaster Management R 470 367 000 (DoA, 2009, pp. 43, 82) The Plant Health and Inspection Services sub-programme is responsible for the development of systems and policies in order to manage the risks involved with plant pests and diseases and GMOs. These systems and policies are also developed to enhance the trading of products of plant origin, to manage the movement of regulated articles and good quality control of regulated products. The largest part of this sub-programmes budget goes towards employee compensation and the goods and services provided. (DoA, 2009, pp. 43, 83) The management of food, health and disasters by this sub-programme consists of the reduction and management of risk with which animal diseases are associated. It also manages the promotion of trading in animal products of origin and ensures food safety. Lastly it entails the development of management strategies for agricultural risks and disasters. Disaster management is the most significant part of the transfers to provinces and municipalities as well as to households. (DoA, 2009, pp. 43, 83) Production and Resource Management The sustainable use and protection of water and land is important to this programme of the DoA. Through this programme this objectives are strived towards by the identification of opportunities and development of strategies for the agricultural sector to be profitable and to optimise agricultural productivity. The sub-programmes are Agricultural Production, and Engineering Services and Resource Management. The budget for are allocated as follows: Management R 1 525 000 Agricultural Production R 275 734 000 Engineering, Energy, Resource Use and Management R 202 778 000 (DoA, 2009, pp. 47, 84) Agricultural Production, as a sub-programme, focuses on assisting the process of improving agricultural productivity, especially in the field of sustainable aquaculture, animal, and plant systems. This sub-programme is also responsible for administrating various acts that apply to this field. The largest part of the budget for Agricultural Production goes towards provinces and municipalities for programmes in the different regions. (DoA, 2009, p. 47) The Engineering Services and Resource Management sub-programme has a treble focus, namely to assist infrastructure development in agriculture, to facilitate agricultural resource use, and to promote the community-based programme, LandCare. The facilitation of agricultural resource use includes the auditing of natural resources, the control of migratory pests, as well as agricultural land protection and rehabilitation. The largest single expense is the LandCare Programme. (DoA, 2009, pp. 47, 66) Sector Services and Partnerships This programme ultimately consists of two parts, the one focusing of services to the sector, the other on partnership with parties outside the sector. The purpose of this programme is therefore to execute the work set out for each of its sub-programmes, the sub-programmes being Sector Services, and International, Intergovernmental and Stakeholder Relations. Together with the management of this programme and the Agricultural Research Council, this above mentioned two sub-programmes forms the core around which the Sector Services and Partnerships budget is spent. Spending is allocated as follows: Management R 10 691 000 Sector Services R 196 518 000 International, Intergovernmental and Stakeholder Relations R 72 370 000 Agricultural Research Council (ARC) R 514 556 000 (DoA, 2009, pp. 51, 86) Sector services as a sub-programme provide direction and support to education, training, extension, research and advisory services in agriculture. The purpose of this service is to support the targeted groups. Managing of the funds transferred to the ARC is also part of Sector Services. The largest part of the budget for Agricultural Production goes towards provinces and municipalities for programmes in the different regions. (DoA, 2009, pp. 51, 86) International, Intergovernmental and Stakeholder Relations as a sub-programme supply leadership and coordination in agricultural international relations. Furthermore is the purpose to create an environment in which all stakeholders can have a positive relationship. Budget is mostly spent on compensation to employees, and foreign governments and international organisations. (DoA, 2009, pp. 51, ) Policy on public goods in South African agriculture The policies in place on public goods in the South African agriculture are policies which promote government spending on various programmes, goods, and services. The way in which this government spending is allocated is described in the previous section under the five programmes of the Department of Agriculture of the South African Government. Each of the five programmes has a very distinct role to play in order to execute the policies that are in place in agriculture. In this section the public goods and services which have the largest amount of money allocated to them will be discussed, as well as the five public entities which report directly to the Minister of Agriculture. From this discussion the policies for implementing the use of these public goods and services in South African agriculture will become clear. Policy types for the top 5 public goods and services in the DoA budget The different types of policies that are used to implement the top five items of highest spending in the DoA budget will be discussed. Two of them will be discussed together. See Annexure B for a complete list. Agricultural Research Council (ARC) R 514 556 000 was allocated to the ARC in the 1 April 2008 31 March 2009 financial year. This public service establishes and controls research, development, and the transfer of technology facilities in order to provide the private sector in agriculture with information. ARC is also promoting cooperation between other countries and South Africa with regards to the above mentioned. (DoA, 2009, pp. 15, 67) The type of policy that is used is a type 8 according to Champney, namely Subsidies to Research and Development, which are promoted by distribution (economic incentive) and are consumptive indivisible (consumption by one influence other in community positively). The ARC therefore plays an important role in providing facilities, such as research, development and transfer of technology in order to contribute to the agricultural sector. (Champney, 1988, p. 990) Comprehensive Agricultural Support Programme (CASP) and CASP Extension Services During the 2008-2009 financial year R 438 124 000 was budgeted for CASP and R 100 000 000 for CASP Extension Services. These two budget items are spent together, thus R 538 124 000. CASP Extension Services are the fourth largest item in die DoA budget. By this programmes, the DoA primarily wants to support the targeted beneficiaries from the land and agrarian programmes implemented by the DoA. By granting money to CASP, the DoA wishes to install improvement in 6 areas, namely: The access to and quality of agricultural support services available to the targeted beneficiaries of land and agrarian programmes, such as advice and information, financial infrastructure, etc., The ability of the DoA to deliver the above mentioned agricultural support services, The number of beneficiaries to benefit from accessing agricultural support services, The timeliness of technical and market information available to resource-poor farmers, The infrastructure available to targeted beneficiaries, on and off the farm, e.g. dipping and fencing, The number of LRAD reform beneficiaries accessing market information, markets and training for markets. (DoA, 2009, pp. 27-28) The policy type that would suit the grants given to the above mentioned improvements can be categorised as type 4 Subsidies to Individuals according to Champney. These grants are targeting individuals, such as the beneficiaries from the land and agrarian programmes, and are consumptive indivisible, since the consumption (use) of these land and agrarian programmes is promoted by grants available to beneficiaries. (Champney, 1988, p. 990) Classical Swine Fever A budget of R 163 900 000 was allocated to the control of classical swine fever breakouts and the necessary compensation to households when animals are killed in order to remove classical swine fever from of area. (DoA, 2009, pp. 4, 67, 138) The type of policy that is used to implement this service to public is a type 4, according to Champneys model. Subsidies to Individuals as a type of policy suit this case, because the individuals whose pigs are slaughtered in order to restrict the spreading of the disease are compensated by means of payment, which is correlated with the number of pigs slaughtered. There is therefore an incentive for farmers who have infected pigs to have them slaughtered, since th

Health and Social Care Essay

We acknowledge with sincere thanks the many people who gave generously of their time to help us with this work. We particularly appreciate the expertise and advice o? ered by Arnon Bentovim, Richard Velleman, Lorna Templeton, Carolyn Davies and Sheena Prentice. The work has been funded by the Department for Education and we thank sta? in the department, particularly Jenny Gray who supported us throughout the work with her interest and valuable comments. The work was assisted by an advisory group whose membership was: Isabella Craig and Jenny Gray (Department for Education); Christine Humphrey (Department of Health) and Sian Rees (NICE); Arnon Bentovim (consultant child and adolescent psychiatrist at the Great Ormond Street Hospital for Children and the Tavistock Clinic); Marian Brandon (reader in social work, University of East Anglia); Carolyn Davies  (research advisor, Institute of Education, University of London); Jo Fox (social work consultant, Child-Centred Practice); David Jones (consultant child and family psychiatrist, Department of Psychiatry; University of Oxford); Sue McGaw (specialist in learning disabilities, Cornwall Partnership Trust); Sheena Prentice (specialist midwife in substance misuse, Nottingham City PCT); Wendy Rose (The Open University); Lorna Templeton (manager of the Alcohol, Drugs and the Family Research Programme, University of Bath); and Richard Velleman (University of Bath and director of development and research, Avon and Wiltshire Mental Health Partnership NHS Trust). Introduction This second edition of Children’s Needs – Parenting Capacity provides an update on the impact of parental problems, such as substance misuse, domestic violence, learning disability and mental illness, on children’s welfare. Research, and in particular the biennial overview reports of serious case reviews (Brandon et al 2008; 2009; 2010), have continued to emphasise the importance of understanding and acting on concerns about children’s safety and welfare when living in households where these types of parental problems are present. Almost three quarters of the children in both this and the 2003-05 study had been living with past or current domestic violence and or parental mental ill health and or substance misuse – often in combination. (Brandon et al 2010, p. 112) These concerns were very similar to those that prompted the ? rst edition of this book, which was commissioned following the emergence of these themes from the Department of Health’s programme of child protection research studies (Department of Health 1995a). These studies had demonstrated that a high level of parental mental illness, problem alcohol and drug abuse and domestic violence were present in families of children who become involved in the child protection system. Research context The 2010 Government statistics for England demonstrate that, as in the 1990s, only a very small proportion of children referred to children’s social care become the subject of a child protection plan (Department for Education 2010b). However, the types of parental problems outlined above are not con? ned to families where a child is the subject of a child protection plan (Brandon et al. 2008, 2009, 2010; Rose and Barnes 2008). In many families children’s health and development are being a? ected by the di? culties their parents are experiencing. The ? ndings from research, however, suggest that services are not always forthcoming. Practically a quarter of referrals to children’s social care resulted in no action being taken (Cleaver and Walker with Meadows 2004). Lord Laming’s progress report (2009) also expressed concerns that referrals to children’s services from other professionals did not always lead to an initial assessment and that ‘much more needs to be done to ensure that the services are as e? ective as possible at working together to achieve positive outcomes for children’ (Lord Laming 2009, p. 9, paragraph 1. 1). Practitioners’ fear of failing to identify a child in need of protection is also a factor driving up the numbers of referrals to children’s social care services which result in no provision of help. ‘This is creating a skewed system that is paying so much attention to identifying cases of abuse 2 Children’s Needs – Parenting Capacity and neglect that it is draining time and resource away from families’ (Munro 2010, p. 6). Munro’s Interim Report (2011) draws attention once again to the highly traumatic experience for children and families who are drawn into the Child Protection system where maltreatment is not found, which leaves them with a fear of asking for help in the future. A ? nding which was identi? ed by earlier research on child protection (Cleaver and Freeman 1995). Evidence from the 1995 child protection research (Department of Health 1995a) indicated that when parents have problems of their own, these may adversely a? ect their capacity to respond to the needs of their children. For example, Cleaver and Freeman (1995) found in their study of suspected child abuse that in more than half of the cases, families were experiencing a number of problems including mental illness or learning disability, problem drinking and drug use, or domestic violence. A similar picture of the di? culties facing families who have been referred to children’s social care services emerges from more recent research (Cleaver and Walker with Meadows 2004). It is estimated that there are 120,000 families experiencing multiple problems, including poor mental health, alcohol and drug misuse, and domestic violence. ‘Over a third of these families have children subject to child protection procedures’ (Munro 2011, p. 30, paragraph 2. 30). Children’s services have the task of identifying children who may need additional services in order to improve their well-being as relating to their: (a) physical and mental health and emotional well-being; (b) protection from harm and neglect; (c) education, training and recreation; (d) the contribution made by them to society; and (e) social and economic well-being. (Section 10(2) of the Children Act 2004) The Common Assessment Framework (Children’s Workforce Development Council 2010) and the Assessment Framework (Department of Health et al. 2000) enable frontline professionals working with children to gain an holistic picture of the child’s world and identify more easily the di? culties children and families may be experiencing. Although research suggests that social workers (Cleaver et al. 2007) and health professionals are equipped to recognise and respond to indications that a child is being, or is likely to be, abused or neglected, there is less evidence in relation to teachers and the police (Daniel et al. 2009). The identi? cation of children’s needs may have improved, but understanding how parental mental illness, learning disabilities, substance misuse and domestic violence a? ect children and families still requires more attention. For example, a small in-depth study found less than half (46%) of the managers in children’s social care, health and the police rated as ‘good’ their understanding of the impact on children of parental substance misuse, although this rose to 61% in relation to the impact of domestic violence (Cleaver et al. 2007). The need for more training on assessing the likelihood of harm to children of parental drug and alcohol misuse.

Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385

1. Which if the following IPv6 address type is assigned to multiple interfaces but packets will only be delivered to one? a. Multicast b. Anycast c. Unicast d. Broadcast Grade:1 User Responses:b. Anycast Feedback:a. An anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes. Packets are delivered to the â€Å"first† interface only. 2. Routers operate at which OSI layer? a. Physical b. Transport c. Network d. Session Grade:1 User Responses:c. Network Feedback:a. Routers operate at the network layer making routing decisions based on IP addresses. 3. Which of the following is NOT a private IPv4 address? Choose all that apply. a. 192. 168. 5. 60 b. 172. 25. 6. 4 c. 10. 0. 6. 5 d. 26. 68. 6. 1 Grade:1 User Responses:d. 26. 68. 6. 1 Feedback:a. The private IP address ranges are as follows. IP Class Assigned Range Class A 10. 0. 0. 0-10. 255. 255. 255 Class B 172. 16. 0. 0-172. 31. 255. 255 Class C 192. 168. 0. 0-192. 168. 255. 2554. What is a server that evaluates Internet requests from LAN devices against a set called? a. Proxy b. Firewall c. Load balancer d. NAT server Grade:1 User Responses:a. Proxy Feedback:a. A server that evaluates Internet requests from LAN devices against a set of rules is called a proxy server. NAT servers perform private to public address translation; load balancers manage traffic between cluster hosts; and a firewall filters traffic based on access control lists.5. Which type of device maintains awareness of the status of connections, thereby preventing IP spoofing attacks? a. Stateless packet filterin g firewall b. Stateful packet filtering firewall c. NAT filter d. Application-level gateway Grade:1 User Responses:b. Stateful packet filtering firewall Feedback:a. A stateful packet filtering firewall is one that monitors the state of each connection by examining the header of each packet. Read this  Chapter 2 – Why Security is Needed A stateless packet filtering firewall does not do this. NAT filters perform only private-to-public address translation. An application-level gateway provides protection to a specific application such as FTP.6. Which of the following firewall services works at the session layer of the OSI model? a. Application layer gateway b. Stateful filtering c. NAT d. Circuit-level gateway Grade:0 User Responses:c. NAT Feedback:a. Circuit-level gateways work at the Session Layer of the OSI model and apply security mechanisms when a TCP or UDP connection is established; they act as a go between for the Transport and Application Layers in TCP/IP.After the connection has been made, packets can flow between the hosts without further checking. Circuit-level gateways hide information about the private network, but they do not filter individual packets.7. Which of the following are the two main functions of a proxy server? a. Caching of web pages b. NAT c. Domain authentication d. DHCP Grade:1 User Respo nses:a. Caching of web pages,c. Domain authentication Feedback:a. A proxy server secures a network by keeping machines behind it anonymous; it does this through the use of NAT. It also improves web performance by caching web pages from servers on the Internet for a set amount of time. b. A proxy server secures a network by keeping machines behind it anonymous; it does this through the use of NAT. It also improves web performance by caching web pages from servers on the Internet for a set amount of time.8. Which of the following devices can detect but not prevent attacks across the entire network? a. NIDS b. Host-based IDS c. NIPS d. Protocol Analyzer Grade:1 User Responses:a. NIDS Feedback:a. Network Intrusion Detection Systems (NIDS) detect but do not prevent attacks across the entire network. Host-based IDS can protect only the host on which it is installed. Network Intrusion Protection Systems (NIPS) can detect and prevent attacks across the entire network. A Protocol Analyzer ca n capture traffic but not act upon it.9. When a NIPs blocks legitimate traffic, what is it known as? a. False negative b. True negative c. False positive d. True positive Grade:1 User Responses:c. False positive Feedback:a. A blocking of traffic is a positive action, and when it is in response to legitimate traffic, it is considered a false action; thus it is a false positive. A false negative would be when an action is NOT taken on traffic that is not legitimate. The other two options are normal actions; a true negative is the allowing of legitimate traffic, whereas a true positive is the blocking of illegitimate traffic.10. Which of the following types of NIPS reacts to actions that deviate from a baseline? a. Signature-based b. Heuristic c. Anomaly-based d. Bit blocker Grade:1 User Responses:c. Anomaly-based Feedback:a. Anomaly-based NIPS recognizes traffic that is unusual and reports it. Signature-based NIPs are configured with the signatures of attacks. Heuristics looks for pat terns in the traffic, whereas bit blocker is a not a type of NIPs.11. Which of the following systems attempt to stop the leakage of confidential data, often concentrating on communications? a. DHCP b. DNS c. DLP d. STP Grade:1 User Responses:c. DLP Feedback:a. Data loss prevention (DLP) systems are designed to protect data by way of content inspection. They are meant to stop the leakage of confidential data, often concentrating on communications. As such, they are often also referred to as data leak prevention (DLP) devices, information leak prevention (ILP) devices, and extrusion prevention systems.Regardless, they are intended to be used to keep data from leaking past a computer system or network and into unwanted hands.12. When a company buys fire insurance they are ____________ risk. a. accepting b. avoiding c. transferring d. reducing Grade:1 User Responses:c. transferring Feedback:a. It is possible to transfer some risk to a third-party. An example of risk transference (also k nown as risk sharing) would be an organization that purchases insurance for a group of servers in a datacenter.The organization still takes on the risk of losing data in the case of server failure, theft, and disaster, but transfers the risk of losing the money those servers are worth in the case they are lost.13. Which of the following processes block external files that use JavaScript or images from loading into the browser? a. URL filtering b. Content filtering c. Malware inspection d. Blacklists Grade:1 User Responses:b. Content filtering Feedback:a. Content filtering is a process that blocks external files that use JavaScript or images from loading into the browser. URL filtering blocks pages based on the URL.Malware inspection looks for malware based on a signature file, and blacklists are items to be denied by spam filters.14. Which of the following actions should NOT be taken for the default account on a network device? a. Delete it. b. Change the password. c. Disable it. d. Leave it as is. Grade:1 User Responses:d. Leave it as is. Feedback:a. The default account has a well-known username and password, so it should be either deleted or disabled, or at a minimum its password should be changed.15. Firewall rules are typically based in all but which of the following? a. IP addresses b. MAC addresses c. Port numbers . Content type Grade:1 User Responses:d. Content type Feedback:a. Firewall rules are typically based on IP addresses, MAC addresses, or port numbers, but they cannot filter for content.16. Which of the following is the target of a double tagging attack? a. VPNs b. VLANs c. Collision domains d. DMZs Grade:1 User Responses:b. VLANs Feedback:a. A double tagging attack can enable the attacker to view traffic from multiple VLANs.17. A network created to allow access to resources from the Internet, while maintaining separation from the internal network is called a ______? a. VPN b. VLAN c. Honeypot d. DMZ Grade:1User Responses:d. DMZ Feedback:a. When talking about computer security, a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is a special area of the network (sometimes referred to as a subnetwork) that houses servers which host information accessed by clients or other networks on the Internet, but which does not allow access to the internal network.18. How can access to the remote management of a router be protected? a. Content filtering b. ACLs c. Firewalls d. IPS Grade:0 User Responses:c. Firewalls Feedback:a. Remote access to a router is usually done via Telnet or SSH. The port used (vty line) can be secured using an access control list. The other options can all be used to help protect routers but not access the remote management function.19. You need to allow access from your network to all web sites. What port numbers should be opened in the firewall? Choose all that apply. a. 25 b. 443 c. 80 d. 119 e. 22 f. 23 Grade:1 User Responses:c. 80 Feedback:a. HTTP and HTTPS are the two services you need to allow access to use ports 80 and 443 res pectively.20. Which of the following mitigation techniques can prevent MAC flooding? a. Secure VLANs b. Prevent ICMP responses c. 802. 1x d. 802. 1q Grade:1 User Responses:c. 802. 1x Feedback:a.MAC flooding, which involves overwhelming the memory of the switch with MAC frames sourced from different MAC addresses, can be prevented by requiring authentication on each port through 802. 1x. Secure VLANs cannot prevent this because the frames don’t need to enter a VLAN to cause the problem. ICMP is at Layer 3, these frames are at Layer 2, and 802. 1q is a VLAN tagging protocol that does not prevent frames from entering the switch through access ports.21. Which of the following attacks cannot be mitigated with a flood guard? a. Smurf attack b. Fraggle c. Teardrop attack d. Session theft Grade:1 User Responses:d.Session theft Feedback:a. The smurf, fraggle, and teardrop attacks all involve sending a flood of packets to a device, using different types of malformed packets. A session theft attack is when a session cookie is stolen and used to authenticate to a server.22. Loop protection is designed to address problems that occur with which device? a. Switch b. Hub c. Router d. Firewall Grade:0 User Responses:b. Hub Feedback:a. Loops occur when switches have redundant connections causing a loop. Loop guard (or loop protection) can prevent loops on the switch.23. When creating an ACL which of the following statements is NOT true? a.The order of the rules is important for proper functioning b. You must include a deny all statement at the end of the rule set for proper functioning c. The more specific rules should be placed at the beginning of the rule list d. Once created, the ACL must be applied to an interface Grade:1 User Responses:b. You must include a deny all statement at the end of the rule set for proper functioning Feedback:a. There is an implied deny all statement at the end of each ACL and it is not required to include one.24. Which of the following is a n example of insecure network bridging in a LAN? a. Laptop connected to a hotspot and an ad hoc network . Laptop connected to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time c. Router connected to two subnets d. PC connected with two NIC to the same LAN Grade:1 User Responses:b. Laptop connected to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time Feedback:a. When a laptop connects to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time, it can create a bridge between the two allowing access to the LAN. The other scenarios do not create a security problem for the LAN.25. When the administrator creates a rule on the firewall to prevent FTP traffic, this is a type of __________rule. . implicit deny b. implicit allow c. explicit deny d. explicit allow Grade:1 User Responses:c. explicit deny Feedback:a. When traffic is specified to be prevented, it is an explicit deny. When it is denied simply because it was not specifically allowed, that is an implicit deny.26. Network Acces s Control (NAC) is an example of_______________. a. role-based management b. rules-based management c. port-based access d. application layer filtering Grade:1 User Responses:b. rules-based management Feedback:a. Network Access Control (NAC) uses rules by which connections to a network are governed.Computers attempting to connect to a network are denied access unless they comply with rules including levels of antivirus protection, system updates, and so on—effectively weeding out those who would perpetuate malicious attacks.27. What type of device is required for communication between VLANs? a. Hub b. Switch c. Router d. Firewall Grade:1 User Responses:c. Router Feedback:a. Hosts in different VLANs are also in different subnets and routing must be performed for them to communicate.28. Which of the following would be least likely to be placed in the DMZ? a. Web server b. DNS server c. Domain controller d. FTP serverGrade:1 User Responses:c. Domain controller Feedback:a. All th e options except a domain controller are often placed in the DMZ so they are accessible to the outside world. A DC however is sensitive and should NOT be placed in the DMZ.29. Subnetting a network creates segmentation at which layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 Grade:1 User Responses:c. Layer 3 Feedback:a. Subnetting a network creates segmentation using IP addresses, which is Layer 3.30. What service is required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address? a. NAT b. DHCP c. DNS d. DLP Grade:0User Responses:a. NAT Feedback:a. Network Address Translation (NAT) is required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address. The specific form of NAT required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address is called Port Address Translation (PAT).31. Which of the following is NOT a remote access protocol? a. MS-CHAP b. CHAP c. LDAP d. PAP Grade:1 User Responses:c. LDAP Feedb ack:a. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is used for accessing directory services such as Active Directory. It is not used in remote access. All other options are remote access protocols.32. Which of the following devices are susceptible to war dialing? a. Modems b. Firewalls c. Content filters d. Load balancers Grade:0 User Responses:a. Modems Feedback:a. Any devices that accept phone calls such as modems or PBX systems with remote phone access are susceptible to war dialing.33. When computers are not allowed to connect to the network without proper security patches and virus updates, the network is using a form of _____________. a. PAT b. DAC c. NAC d. DMZ Grade:0 User Responses:d. DMZ Feedback:a. Network Access Control (NAC) uses rules by which connections to a network are governed.Computers attempting to connect to a network are denied access unless they comply with rules including levels of antivirus protection, system updates, and so on—effectively weeding out those who would perpetuate malicious attacks.34. Which of the following items do not need to be changed on a new router to ensure secure router management? a. IP address b. Administrator name c. Administrator password d. IOS version Grade:1 User Responses:d. IOS version Feedback:a. All the options except the IOS version can be set to defaults from the factory and should be changed because they are well known.35. Which of the following is NOT an example of cloud computing? a. SaaS b. IaaS c. PaaS d. BaaS Grade:1 User Responses:d. BaaS Feedback:a. Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS) are all forms of cloud computing.36. On which concept is cloud computing based? a. load balancing b. virtualization c. RAID d. DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. virtualization Feedback:a. All forms of cloud computing use virtualization.37. A three legged perimeter is a form of ______________. a. VPN b. DMZ c. NAT d. ACL Grade:1 User Responses:b. DMZ Fee dback:a. A three-legged perimeter is a firewall or server with three NICs: one pointed to the LAN, one to the Internet, and one to the DMZ.38. Which of the following is NOT a benefit provided by subnetting? a. It increases security by compartmentalizing the network. b. It is a more efficient use of IP address space. c. It reduces broadcast traffic and collisions. d. It eases administration of the network. Grade:1 User Responses:d. It eases administration of the network. Feedback:a. Subnetting provides a number of benefits but easing administration is not one of them.39. Which of the following is the result of implementing VLANs? . Larger broadcast domains b. Smaller collision domains c. Smaller broadcast domains d. Larger collision domains Grade:1 User Responses:c. Smaller broadcast domains Feedback:a. VLANs break up the network into subnets and as such result in smaller broadcast domains.40. Which of the following services helps conserve public IP addresses? a. NAT b. DHCP c. DNS d . SLIP Grade:0 User Responses:c. DNS Feedback:a. By allowing the use of private IP addresses inside each network and by representing those groups of private IP addresses with a single public IP address, public IP addresses are conserved by NAT.41. Which of the following remote access protocols are used with VPNs? Choose all that apply. a. PPTP b. PPP c. L2TP d. SLIP Grade:1 User Responses:c. L2TP,d. SLIP Feedback:a. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer Two Tunneling protocol (L2TP) are used with VPNs. PPP and SLIP are used for dial-up. /b. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer Two Tunneling protocol (L2TP) are used with VPNs. PPP and SLIP are used for dial-up.42. Which of the following security protocols operates at the network layer of the OSI model? a. IPSec b. SSH c. SSL d. TLS Grade:1 User Responses:a. IPSec Feedback:a.One of the key features of IPSec is its operation at the network layer enabling it to protect any type of communication operating at th e upper layers of the OSI model.43. Which of the following are components of SNMP? Choose all that apply. a. NMS b. IPSec c. Agent d. CARP Grade:1 User Responses:b. IPSec,c. Agent Feedback:a. The three components of SNMP are a network management system (NMS), agent software, and the managed device, where the agent software operates. /b. The three components of SNMP are a network management system (NMS), agent software, and the managed device, where the agent software operates.44. SSL is designed as a secure replacement for which of the following? a. PPP b. Telnet c. TLS d. SSH Grade:0 User Responses:d. SSH Feedback:a. SSL is designed as a secure replacement for Telnet, which transmits in clear text.45. Which of the following protocols supersedes SSL? a. SSH b. TLS c. S/MIME d. EAP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SSH Feedback:a. TLS 1. 2, the latest version, is used when establishing an HTTPS connection and supersedes SSLv3.46. The operation of which of the following protocols makes the SY N flood attack possible? a. IPX/SPX b. AppleTalk c. TCP/IP d. RIP Grade:1 User Responses:c. TCP/IP Feedback:a.TCP/IP uses a three-way handshake for its connection, and the SYN flood attack attempts to take advantage of the operation of this connection operation.47. Which of the following provides secure web access? a. SFTP b. HTTP c. HTTPS d. SSH Grade:1 User Responses:c. HTTPS Feedback:a. HTTPS uses port 443 and is the standard for secure web access.48. SCP is a secure copy protocol that uses the port of which other protocol for transfers? a. HTTPS b. SSH c. SSL d. FTPS Grade:0 User Responses:d. FTPS Feedback:a. Secure copy (SCP) is another example of a protocol that uses another protocol (and its corresponding port). It uses SSH and ultimately uses port 22 to transfer data.49. Which of the following protocols is abused when a ping flood occurs? a. SNMP b. IGMP c. ICMP d. EIGRP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SNMP Feedback:a. Ping floods use ICMP echo request packets aimed at the target. 50. Which of the following security mechanisms are built into IPv6? a. IPSec b. SSL c. HTTPS d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:a. IPSec Feedback:a. IPv6 has IPSec support built in.51. What method is used by SSL to obtain and validate certificates? a. SPI b. PKI c. TLS d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:b. PKI Feedback:a.SSL and TLS use a public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to obtain and validate certificates.52. What port number does FTPS use to protect the transmission? a. 21 b. 88 c. 443 d. 445 Grade:0 User Responses:a. 21 Feedback:a. FTPS uses SSL or TLS over port 443 to make a secure connection.53. Which of the following protocols uses port 22, normally used by SSH, to make a secure connection? a. FTPS b. SCP c. SFTP d. SSL Grade:0 User Responses:b. SCP Feedback:a. Secure FTP (SFTP) uses port 22, the port for SSH, which is why it is also sometimes called SSH FTP.54. Which protocol uses ports 161 and 162? a. SMTP b. IMAP4 . SNMP d. IGMP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SMTP Feedback:a. SNMP is used to collect information about and make changes to devices on the network. It uses ports 161 and 162.55. Which protocol uses the same port as HTTPS? a. SCP b. FTPS c. SFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:0 User Responses:c. SFTP Feedback:a. FTP secure (FTPS) uses port 443, which is also used by HTTPS.56. Which protocol uses port 69? a. SCP b. FTPS c. TFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:1 User Responses:c. TFTP Feedback:a. TFTP uses port 69.57. What port number is used by Telnet? a. 80 b. 443 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:1 User Responses:d. 23 Feedback:a. Port 23 is used by Telnet.58. Which port does HTTP use? a. 80 b. 443 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:0 User Responses:b. 443 Feedback:a. HTTP uses port 80.59. Which port does SCP use to transfer data? a. 80 b. 22 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:0 User Responses:c. 21 Feedback:a. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data.60. Which protocol uses port 443? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. TFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:1 User Responses:a. HTTPS Feedback:a. HTTPS uses port 443.61. Which two protocols use port 22? a. HTTPS b. FT PS c. SSH d. SCP Grade:2 User Responses:c. SSH,d. SCP Feedback:a. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data, so both protocols use this port. b. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data, so both protocols use this port.62. Which ports does the NetBIOS protocol uses? Choose all that apply. a. 138 b. 139 c. 137 d. 140 Grade:3 User Responses:a. 138,b. 139,c. 137 Feedback:a. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. /b. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. /c. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139.63. What protocol uses port 53? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. SSH d. DNS Grade:0 User Responses:b. FTPS Feedback:a. DNS uses port 53.64. Which port number does RDP use? a. 3389 b. 1723 c. 1701 d. 140 Grade:1 User Responses:a. 3389 Feedback:a. Port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop (RDP).65. What protocol uses port 25? a. HTTPS b. SMTP c. SSH d. DNS Grade:1 User Responses:b. SMTP Feedback:a. SMTP uses port 25.66. Which of the following statements is true regarding WP A and WPA2? (Choose all that apply. ) a. WPA uses 256-bit encryption. b. WPA2 uses 128-bit encryption. c. WPA uses TKIP. d. WPA2 uses AES. Grade:2 User Responses:c. WPA uses TKIP. ,d. WPA2 uses AES. Feedback:a. WPA uses TKIP 128-bit encryption, whereas WPA2 uses 256-bit AES. /b. WPA uses TKIP 128-bit encryption, whereas WPA2 uses 256-bit AES.67. Which statement is NOT true with regard to WPA2? a. Uses AES encryption b. Meets requirements of 802. 11i c. Uses TKIP encryption d. Uses 256 bit encryption Grade:1 User Responses:c. Uses TKIP encryption Feedback:a. WPA uses TKIP but WPA2 uses AES.68. Which of the following is the security provided in the original 802. 11 standard? a. WPA b. WPA2 c. WEP d. CCMP Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is the security provided in the original 802. 11 standard.69. What is the authentication system that calls for a supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server called? . EAP b. WPA c. WPA2 d. WEP Grade:1 Us er Responses:a. EAP Feedback:a. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication system that calls for a supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server.70. Which of the following implementations of EAP requires certificates on the client and the server? a. EAP-FAST b. EAP-TTLS c. PEAP d. EAP-TLS Grade:1 User Responses:d. EAP-TLS Feedback:a. EAP-TLS requires certificates on the client and the server.71. Which of the following versions of EAP is Cisco proprietary? a. LEAP b. EAP-TTLS c. PEAP d. EAP-TLS Grade:1 User Responses:a. LEAP Feedback:a. Lightweight EAP is a version that works only on Cisco devices unless the device is from a partner that participates in the Cisco Compatible Extensions program.72. Why are MAC filters not effective in preventing access to the WLAN? a. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in the beacon frames sent by the AP. b. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device. c. The admi nistrative effort to maintain the MAC list is prohibitive. d. If the user changes his MAC address, the filter will disallow entry. Grade:1 User Responses:b.The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device. Feedback:a. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device and can be seen by those using wireless protocol analyzers. The MAC address can then be spoofed for entry.73. Which of the following frame types contain the SSID? (Choose all that apply. ) a. Beacon frames b. Data frames c. Association frames d. Authentication frames Grade:3 User Responses:b. Data frames,c. Association frames,d. Authentication frames Feedback:a. The SSID is contained in all frames.If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. /b. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. /c. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames.74. TKIP was designed to correct the shortcomings of which of the following? a. EAP b. WPA c. WEP d. WPA2 Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. TKIP was designed to correct the shortcomings of WEP. It was a temporary solution for use until the 802. 1x standard was completed.75. Which of the following encryption protocols is used with WPA2? . TKIP b. CCMP c. WEP d. DES Grade:1 User Responses:b. CCMP Feedback:a. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) is the encryption protocol used with WPA2. It addresses the vulnerabilities of TKIP and meets requirements of IEEE 802. 11i.76. Which antenna types would be best for shaping the signal away from the front of the building for security purposes while still providing coverage in the other part of the building? (Choose all that apply. ) a. Yagi b. Omni c. Parabolic dish d. Semidirectional Grade:2 User Responses:a. Yagi,d. Semidirectional Feedback:a.You can us e a yagi antenna, which is a type of semidirectional antenna, to shape the coverage area as called for in the scenario. /b. You can use a yagi antenna, which is a type of semidirectional antenna, to shape the coverage area as called for in the scenario.77. How can you keep the existing radiation pattern of the antenna while reducing the coverage area? a. Increase the power of the transmitter. b. Decrease the power of the transmitter. c. Change the polarity of the antenna. d. Remove one of the attenuators from the line. Grade:1 User Responses:b. Decrease the power of the transmitter.Feedback:a. Reducing the power level maintains the radiation pattern while making the area of radiation smaller.78. What organization created WPA? a. FCC b. Wi-Fi Alliance c. IEEE d. ISO Grade:1 User Responses:b. Wi-Fi Alliance Feedback:a. The Wi-Fi Alliance created WPA to address the weaknesses of WEP.79. To which standard is WPA2 designed to adhere? a. 802. 16 b. 802. 11f c. 802. 11i d. 802. 11e Grade:1 User Responses:c. 802. 11i Feedback:a. WPA2 is designed to adhere to the 802. 11i security standard.80. Which of the following is the weakest form of security? a. TKIP b. WPA c. WEP d. EAP Grade:1User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. WEP is the weakest form of security. It has been cracked and is not suitable for Enterprise WLANs.81. A ______________ attack intercepts all data between a client and a server. a. DDoS b. Man-in-the-middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:b. Man-in-the-middle Feedback:a. Man-in-the-middle is a type of active interception. If successful, all communications now go through the MITM attacking computer.82. When a group of compromised systems attack a single target it is a called a _______________ attack. a. DDoS b. Man-in-the middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1User Responses:a. DDoS Feedback:a. A distributed denial-of-service attack occurs when a group of compromised systems launches a DDoS attack on a single target.83. When valid data transmissions are maliciously or fraudulently repeated, it is called a _______________ attack. a. DDoS b. man-in-the middle c. replay d. smurf Grade:1 User Responses:c. replay Feedback:a. When valid data transmissions are maliciously or fraudulently repeated, it is a called a replay attack.84. What attack sends large amounts of ICMP echoes, broadcasting the ICMP echo requests to every computer on its network or subnetwork? a.DDoS b. Man-in-the middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:d. Smurf Feedback:a. A smurf attack sends large amounts of ICMP echoes, broadcasting the ICMP echo requests to every computer on its network or subnetwork. The ICMP request is sent to a broadcast address. When all hosts receive the ICMP broadcast request, these host send ICMP replies to the source address, which has been set to the address of the target.85. Changing your MAC address to that of another host is called ___________________. a. spear phishing b. spoofing c. pharming d. vishing Grade:1 User Responses:b . spoofing Feedback:a.Spoofing is when an attacker tails the IP or MAC address of another computer.86. Which of the following is more an aggravation than an attack? a. Spear phishing b. Spoofing c. Spam d. Vishing Grade:1 User Responses:c. Spam Feedback:a. Spam or unwanted email is more an aggravation than an attack.87. Which of the following uses instant messaging as its vehicle? a. Spim b. Spoofing c. Phishing d. Vishing Grade:1 User Responses:a. Spim Feedback:a. Spam Over Instant Messaging (SPIM) uses IM to deliver the spam.88. When VoIP phone calls are used in the pursuit of social engineering, it is called__________. a. spim b. poofing c. phishing d. vishing Grade:1 User Responses:d. vishing Feedback:a. Vishing is phishing performed with VoIP calls, which are harder to trace than regular calls.89. What type of attack is an advanced scan that tries to get around firewalls and look for open ports? a. DDoS b. Man-in-the-middle c. Xmas attack d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:c. Xmas attack Feedback:a. Usually using Nmap, the Xmas attack is an advanced scan that tries to get around firewalls and look for open ports.90. __________________ is when an attacker redirects one website’s traffic to another bogus and possibly malicious website. a.DDoS b. Pharming c. Xmas attack d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:b. Pharming Feedback:a. Host files and vulnerable DNS software can also be victims of pharming attacks. Pharming is when an attacker redirects one website’s traffic to another bogus and possibly malicious website. Pharming can be prevented by carefully monitoring DNS configurations and host files.91. ___________ is when a person that is not normally authorized to a server manages to get administrative permissions to resources. a. Whaling b. Pharming c. Spear phishing d. Privilege escalation Grade:1 User Responses:d. Privilege escalation Feedback:a.Privilege escalation is when a person that is not normally authorized to a server manages to get adminis trative permissions to resources.92. Which problem is the most difficult to contend with? a. Malicious insider threat b. Fraggle attack c. Distributed denial-of-service d. Whaling Grade:1 User Responses:a. Malicious insider threat Feedback:a. Because the attacker already is inside the network with company knowledge, a malicious insider threat is the most difficult to contend with.93. What type of attack can DNS poisoning lead to? a. Whaling b. Pharming c. Spear phishing d. Privilege escalation Grade:0User Responses:c. Spear phishing Feedback:a. Pharming attacks lead users from a legitimate website to a malicious twin. The easiest way to do this is to poison the DNS cache so that the DNS server sends them to the malicious site.94. Strong input validation can help prevent ____________________. a. bluesnarfing b. SQL injection c. session highjacking d. header manipulation Grade:0 User Responses:c. session highjacking Feedback:a. SQL injection attacks user input in web forms that is not correctly filtered. This can be prevented with input validations.95. LDAP injection is an attack on __________________servers. . SQL b. directory c. web d. email Grade:1 User Responses:b. directory Feedback:a. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is a protocol used to maintain a directory of information such as user accounts or other types of objects.96. XML injection can be prevented with __________________. a. IDS b. IPS c. input validation d. complex passwords Grade:0 User Responses:d. complex passwords Feedback:a. The best way to protect against this (and all code injection techniques for that matter) is to incorporate strong input validation.97. The .. / attack is also known as ________________. a. irectory traversal b. SQL injection c. session highjacking d. header manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:a. directory traversal Feedback:a. Directory traversal, or the .. / (dot dot slash) attack is a method to access unauthorized parent (or worse, root) directories.98. ___________ __ is when commands and command syntax are entered into an application or OS. a. Directory traversal b. Command injection c. Command highjacking d. Code manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:b. Command injection Feedback:a. Command injection is when commands and command syntax are entered into an application or OS.99. Buffer overflows operate against the _________ of the computer. a. NIC b. disk c. CPU d. memory Grade:1 User Responses:d. memory Feedback:a. A buffer overflow is when a process stores data outside of the memory that the developer intended.100. What is the difference between an XSS and XSRF attack? a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSFR attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. b. The XSFR attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSS attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. . The XSS attack creates a buffer overflow on the website, whereas the XSFR attack creates a buffer overflow on the client. d. The XSS attack creates a buffer overflow on the client, whereas the XSFR attack creates a buffer overflow on the website. Grade:1 User Responses:a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSFR attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. Feedback:a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website. The converse of this: the XSRF attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. In this attack (also known as a one-click attack), the user’s browser is compromised and transmits unauthorized commands to the website.101. _______________ are placed by programmers, knowingly or inadvertently, to bypass normal authentication and other security mechanisms in place. a. Landing spots b. Backdoors c. Hotspots d. Code heels Grade:1 User Responses:b. Backdoors Feedback:a. Backdoors a re placed by programmers, knowingly or inadvertently, to bypass normal authentication and other security mechanisms in place.102. An XSS attack is also called a(n) __________________ attack. a. Zero day b. Command injection . Xmas d. Cross site scripting Grade:1 User Responses:d. Cross site scripting Feedback:a. XSS attacks, also called cross site scripting attacks, exploit the trust a user’s browser has in a website through code injection, often in webforms.103. ______________can be used by spyware and can track people without their permission. a. MAC addresses b. Cookies c. IP addresses d. Attachments Grade:1 User Responses:b. Cookies Feedback:a. Cookies are text files placed on the client computer that store information about it, which could include your computer’s browsing habits and possibly user credentials.104. Which of the following attachments is the riskiest to open? a.. exe b.. pdf c.. doc d.. txt Grade:1 User Responses:a.. exe Feedback:a. A . exe or executa ble file is one that contains a program that will do something, perhaps malicious to the computer.105. Stolen cookies can be used to launch a(n) ____________________. a. XSS attack b. SQL injection c. session highjack d. header manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:c. session highjack Feedback:a. Session cookies authenticate you to a server and can be used to highjack your session.106. Header manipulation alters information in ______________ headers. a. LDAP b. file c. HTTP . SQL Grade:1 User Responses:c. HTTP Feedback:a. Header manipulation alters information in HTTP headers and falsifies access.107. An ActiveX control is an example of a(n) _________________. a. cookie b. add-on c. cipher d. virus Grade:1 User Responses:b. add-on Feedback:a. You can enable and disable add-on programs such as ActiveX controls in the Programs tab by clicking the Manage add-ons button in Internet Explorer.108. When an attack targets an operating system vulnerability that is still unknown to the world in general, it is called a __________. a. P2P attack b. zero day attack c. whaling attack d. DDoS attack Grade:1User Responses:b. zero day attack Feedback:a. A zero day attack targets an operating system vulnerability that is still unknown to the world in general.109. __________________is a concept that refers to the monitoring of data in use, data in motion, and data at rest. a. DLP b. DHCP c. DEP d. DMS Grade:1 User Responses:a. DLP Feedback:a. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a concept that refers to the monitoring of data in use, data in motion, and data at rest. It does this through content inspection and is designed to prevent unauthorized use of data as well as prevent the leakage of data outside the computer (or network) that it resides.110. Which form of DLP is typically installed in data centers or server rooms? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:c. Storage DLP Feedback:a. Storage DLP systems are typically installed in data centers or server rooms as software that inspect data at rest.111. Which of the following is an example of drive encryption? a. AppLocker b. BitLocker c. Windows defender d. Trusted Platform Module Grade:1 User Responses:b. BitLocker Feedback:a. To encrypt an entire hard disk, you need some kind of full disk encryption software.Several are currently available on the market; one developed by Microsoft is called BitLocker.112. The beauty of hardware-based encryption devices such as HSM (and TPM) is that it is ____________ than software encryption. a. more difficult to crack b. easier to use than software encryption c. faster than software encryption d. can be used to calculate data other than encryption keys Grade:1 User Responses:c. faster than software encryption Feedback:a. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors.This means that they are used for encryption during secure login/authentication processes, during digital signings of da ta, and for payment security systems. The beauty of hardware-based encryption devices such as HSM (and TPM) is that it is faster than software encryption.113. A _________________ is a chip residing on the motherboard that actually stores the encrypted keys. a. DLP b. DHCP c. DEP d. TPM Grade:1 User Responses:d. TPM Feedback:a. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip is one residing on the motherboard that actually stores the encrypted keys.114. Which of the following is NOT required to encrypt the entire disk in Windows?Choose all that apply. a. TPM chip or USB key b. A hard drive with two volumes c. HSM Module d. Cryptoprocessor Grade:2 User Responses:c. HSM Module,d. Cryptoprocessor Feedback:a. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors; however, they are NOT a part of encrypting the entire disk in Windows. /b. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors; however, they are NOT a part of encry pting the entire disk in Windows.115. Probably the most important security concern with cloud computing is _______________. . less secure connections b. loss of physical control of data c. weak authentication d. bug exploitation Grade:1 User Responses:b. loss of physical control of data Feedback:a. Probably the most important security control concern is the physical control of data that is lost when an organization makes use of cloud computing.116. Which of the following is NOT a solution to security issues surrounding cloud computing? a. Complex passwords b. Strong authentication methods c. Standardization of programming d. Multiple firewalls Grade:1 User Responses:d. Multiple firewalls Feedback:a. Solutions to these security issues include complex passwords, strong authentication methods, encryption, and standardization of programming.117. Which form of DLP is typically installed on individual computers? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 Us er Responses:a. Endpoint DLP Feedback:a. Endpoint DLP systems run on an individual computer and are usually software-based. They monitor data in use such as email communications and can control what information flows between various users.118. Where could you disable the use of removable media on a computer? a. Device manager . BIOS c. Control panel d. Programs and features Grade:1 User Responses:b. BIOS Feedback:a. BIOS settings can be used to reduce the risk of infiltration including disabling removable media including the floppy drives and eSATA and USB ports.119. What are two shortcomings of using BitLocker drive encryption? a. Weak encryption b. Expensive c. Performance suffers d. Shorter drive life Grade:2 User Responses:c. Performance suffers,d. Shorter drive life Feedback:a. A drive encrypted with BitLocker usually suffers in performance compared to a nonencrypted drive and could have a shorter shelf life as well. /b. A drive encrypted with BitLocker usually suffers in perfo rmance compared to a nonencrypted drive and could have a shorter shelf life as well.120. Which form of DLP is typically installed on the perimeter of the network? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. Network DLP Feedback:a. Network DLP systems can be software or hardware solutions that are often installed on the perimeter of the network. They inspect data that is in motion.121. Software as a service (SaaS) is a type of _____________ computing. a. HSM b. cloud c. role-based d. TPM Grade:1 User Responses:b. cloudFeedback:a. Software as a Service (SaaS) is the most commonly used and recognized example of cloud computing. SaaS is when users access applications over the Internet that are provided by a third party.122. Which form of DLP inspects ONLY data in motion? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. Network DLP Feedback:a. Network DLP systems can be software or hardware solut ions that are often installed on the perimeter of the network. They inspect data that is in motion.123. Which of the following is NOT an example of cloud services? a. SaaS b. IaaS c. PaaS d. BaaS Grade:1User Responses:d. BaaS Feedback:a. Examples of cloud services include Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS).124. When an electronic control suffers an error, reports the error, and shuts down, it is called_____________. a. Failopen b. Failsafe c. Failclose d. Failshut Grade:1 User Responses:b. Failsafe Feedback:a. When the control fails and shuts down, it is a failsafe. When it fails and leaves a vulnerable system, it is a failopen.125. What should be the first thing you check when an intrusion has been detected? a. Firewall logs b. Server logs c. Workstation logs d.Security patches Grade:1 User Responses:a. Firewall logs Feedback:a. Logging is also important when it comes to a firewall. Firewall logs should be the first th ing you check when an intrusion has been detected. You should know how to access the logs and how to read them.126. Which log on a Windows server is where you could learn if Joe logged in today? a. Applications b. System c. Security d. DNS Grade:1 User Responses:c. Security Feedback:a. The security log contains entries about logins and access to resources both successful and unsuccessful.127. Which of the following is NOT an example of physical security? a. Mantraps b.Security logs c. Video surveillance d. Hardware locks Grade:1 User Responses:b. Security logs Feedback:a. Security logs track activities on the network which is logical not physical security.128. Which of the following is NOT a type of door lock? a. Cipher b. Keyed c. Cardkey d. Mantrap Grade:1 User Responses:d. Mantrap Feedback:a. A mantrap is a two door system designed to prevent tailgating.129. Which of the following is NOT an example of operating system hardening? a. Disabling unnecessary services b. Removing the N IC c. Protecting management interfaces d. Password protection Grade:1 User Responses:b. Removing the NIC Feedback:a.Hardening the system should not reduce its functionality, and removing the NIC would do that.130. Which of the following standards is often referred to as port-based security? a. 802. 1x b. 802. 11 c. 802. 11n d. 802. 1 Grade:1 User Responses:a. 802. 1x Feedback:a. 802. 1x enforces perimeter security by keeping the port of the station closed until authentication is complete.131. In which type of monitoring is network traffic analyzed for predetermined attack patterns? a. Signature-based monitoring b. Anomaly-based monitoring c. Behavior-based monitoring d. Reactive-based monitoring Grade:1 User Responses:a. Signature-based monitoringFeedback:a. Network traffic is analyzed for predetermined attack patterns. These attack patterns are known as signatures.132. A(n) __________________ uses baseline reporting and other analyses to discover vulnerabilities and weaknesses in s ystems. a. NAT b. SPA c. SLA d. PSK Grade:1 User Responses:b. SPA Feedback:a. The security posture can be defined as the risk level to which a system, or other technology element, is exposed. Security Posture Assessments (SPA) use baseline reporting and other analyses to discover vulnerabilities and weaknesses in systems.133. Which of the following indicate a problem currently occurring? . Trends b. Baselines c. Alarms d. Averts Grade:1 User Responses:c. Alarms Feedback:a. Although alerts indicate an issue that MAY need attention, alarms indicate a problem currently occurring.134. Which of the following are detection controls? (Choose all that apply. ) a. IDS b. IPS c. Video cameras d. Security guard Grade:2 User Responses:a. IDS,c. Video cameras Feedback:a. Detection controls, such as Intrusion Detection systems and video cameras record only activity; they do not prevent it. /b. Detection controls, such as Intrusion Detection systems and video cameras record only activity; they do not prevent it.135. Which of the following is designed to prevent tailgating? a. Mantraps b. Security logs c. Video surveillance d. Hardware locks Grade:1 User Responses:a. Mantraps Feedback:a. Mantraps use double doors to prevent tailgating.136. Which of the following is a proximity reader? a. a security card that transmits the location of the holder b. a device that tracks how close an individual is c. a security card reader that can read the card from a distance d. a card reader that locks the door when the holder is a certain distance from the door Grade:1 User Responses:c. security card reader that can read the card from a distance Feedback:a. These cards use radio waves to transmit to the reader.137. By frequently updating systems and by employing other methods such as group policies and baselining, you _____________ the systems. a. brace b. harden c. virtualize d. hardline Grade:1 User Responses:b. harden Feedback:a. By frequently updating systems and by employing other metho ds such as group policies and baselining, you harden the system.138. Installing service packs is a part of the ___________ process. a. baselining b. hardening c. scaling . security templating Grade:1 User Responses:b. hardening Feedback:a. Hardening the OS is accomplished through the use of service packs, patch management, hotfixes, group policies, security templates, and configuration baselines.139. ______________ can be described as unauthorized WAPs that inadvertently enable access to secure networks. a. Rogue access points b. Evil twin c. War driver d. Phisher Grade:1 User Responses:a. Rogue access points Feedback:a. Rogue access points can be described as unauthorized wireless access points/routers that enable access to secure networks.They differ from an Evil twin in that an Evil twin is strategically placed for the purpose of accessing the network or performing a high jacking attack, whereas rogue access points generally may be placed by employees for their convenience.140. W hich wireless attacks include the introduction of radio interference? a. Rogue Access Point b. Evil twin c. War driver d. Bluesnarfing Grade:1 User Responses:b. Evil twin Feedback:a. The evil twin attack includes jamming the network to cause the stations to associate with the evil twin AP.141. When executing the Evil twin attack, what value must match on the Evil twin and the legitimate AP? . IP address b. SSID c. MAC address d. Admin password Grade:1 User Responses:b. SSID Feedback:a. The Evil twin attack includes jamming the network to cause the stations to associate with the Evil twin AP. The stations will not roam to the Evil twin unless the SSID is the same as the legitimate AP.142. ________________ is when a person attempts to access a wireless network, usually while driving in a vehicle. a. War chalking b. Radiophishing c. War driving d. Bluesnarfing Grade:1 User Responses:c. War driving Feedback:a. War driving is when a person attempts to access a wireless

Definition of Money and Its Uses - 1579 Words

An Analysis of Money and How it Works For a definition of money and where it comes from, one could turn to the United States Constitution, Article 1, Section 8, which states that the Congress shall have the Power to coin Money, regulate the Value thereof, and fix the standards of weights and measures. But if such a definition fails to get to the heart of what money is, one could turn to Adam Smith, author of Wealth of Nations, who wrote that money has become in all civilized nations the universal instrument of commerce, by the intervention of which goods of all kinds are bought and sold, or exchanged for one another (44). In other words, in Adam Smiths time, money represented the value of labor or commodity. Today, a definition of money is not so simple. The creation of money out of thin air (Paul End the Fed 150), or fiat currency, and the monetization of debt, have all changed the way we think of money. Today, paper money is no longer tied to the precious metals it once represented. 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